Olympiad Combinatorics practice

Five combinatorics problems for practice. The first two problems are on invariants, the third problem uses intermediate value theorem, the fourth one is a game and the last one is a construction problem.

We start with an easy problem.

Proof: We proceed by contradiction. If the square can be dissected into nine non-congruent rectangles, we will show that the total area will exceed 36.

We will enumerate the areas of non-congruent rectangles with sidelengths of at most 6 units and the number of such non-congruent rectangles.

Areaa x bnumber
11 x 11
21 x 21
31 x 31
41 x 4, 2 x 22
51 x 51
61x 6, 2 x 32
82 x 41

Total sum of areas of 9 rectangles $\geq$ 1 + 2+ 3+4 +4 + 5 +6 +6 +8 = 39
This means that any dissection of a 6 x 6 square into 9 incongruent rectangles has atleast 39 sq units as area. But 6×6 square has area 36. So this is the required contradiction.


Proof: This is a classic problem. For any collection on $n$ variables, $z_1,z_2,z_3,\ldots, z_n$, consider the product of all possible pairwise differences: $$\displaystyle \triangle(z) = \prod_{1\leq i < j\leq n} (z_i-z_j).$$ The key observation is that the product $\triangle$ switches sign if two numbers are swapped. In formal terms, let $x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n$ be obtained by swapping a pair of numbers from $y_1,y_2,y_3,\ldots, y_n$, then $$\triangle(x) = -\triangle(y)$$. We leave this book keeping proof to the reader. But once this is done, we see that odd number of swaps produces a minus sign compared to the original one, so odd number of swaps is impossible.

Note that the result we have proved is stronger than the one in question. We proved the claim for all swaps not just adjacent ones.


Proof: (sketch) Represent the polynomial $x^2+ax+b$ on the plane by the point $(a,b)$. students moves will create a path out of lattice points. Now the family of polynomials $x^2 + (n+1)x + n$ is represented by the set of lattice points on the line y=x-1. Since the starting and ending points lie on the either side, the path must cross the polynomial $x^2 + (n+1)x + n$ which has integer roots.


Proof: I claim Naomi has a winning strategy. First we note that n cannot be written as difference of two squares iff $n \equiv 2 \mod 4$ . Twenty-five numbers from 1 to 100 are in each remainder class modulo 4. Naomi’s strategy is to maintain the sum of the picked numbers as a multiple of 4, forcing Tom to pick a number congruent to 2 mod 4 eventually. She can implement the strategy by the following procedure:

  • Start with a 4
  • If Tom picks 1 mod 4, then choose a number that is 3 mod 4 number and vice versa.
  • If Tom picks a multiple of 4, then write a multiple of 4.
    Naomi can always run her strategy because of the following reasons:
  • Since there are odd number of multiples of 4, she will always be the last one to write a multiple of 4.
  • Since there are equal numbers of 1 and 3 mod 4 numbers and she never starts with one of them, she will be the last one to write 1 or 3.
    Since she never has to write a 2 mod 4, she wins.

Proof(Abhhi, Rishon and Srikanth): We claim the smallest possible number of cards is 17.
First we show that Matthew must have placed at least 17 cards on the table.
Suppose Matt has $k$ cards on the table and let us denote it by $x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_k$. If Matt can place a new card $x_{k+1}$ on the table, then we need (k+1) to divide $\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{k+1} x_i$ and thus \[x_{k+1}\equiv -(x_1+x_2+\ldots x_{k}) \mod (k+1).\] Let $a$ denote the congruence class of $-(x_1+x_2+\ldots x_{k})$ modulo $(k+1)$. The only way he cannot place card $x_{k+1}$ is if all the cards with $-a \mod (k+1)$ has already been placed on the table. Since each congruence class appears at most $\left\lfloor \dfrac{300}{k+1} \right\rfloor$ times and we have placed only $k$ cards, we must have \[ \left\lfloor \dfrac{300}{k+1} \right\rfloor < k+1 \] This inequality is satisfied iff $k \geq 17$.

Now we show $k=17$ can be achieved. Matt writes all the numbers of the form 1 mod 18 in increasing order. So he writes 17 numbers this way. Now the sum of the cards on the table is \[\sum_{k=0}^{16} (18k+1) = 18 \times \frac{(16 \times 17)}{2}+17 \equiv 0+(-1) \mod 18.\]
Now Matt has exhausted all the numbers of the form 1 mod 18 and thus cant continue. So 17 cards is achievable.


Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top